Difference between revisions of "1968 IMO Problems/Problem 1"
| Line 20: | Line 20: | ||
| + | ==Solution 2== | ||
| − | + | (Note: this proof is an expansion by pf02 of an outline of a solution | |
| + | posted here before.) | ||
| − | |||
In a given triangle <math>ABC</math>, let <math>A=2B</math>, <math>\implies C=180-3B</math>, and <math>\sin C=\sin 3B</math>. | In a given triangle <math>ABC</math>, let <math>A=2B</math>, <math>\implies C=180-3B</math>, and <math>\sin C=\sin 3B</math>. | ||
Then | Then | ||
| Line 37: | Line 38: | ||
<math>\frac{\sin A}{a} = \frac{\sin B}{b} = \frac{\sin C}{c}</math>. | <math>\frac{\sin A}{a} = \frac{\sin B}{b} = \frac{\sin C}{c}</math>. | ||
| − | + | Denote this ratio by <math>r</math>; we have <math>\sin A = ra, \sin B = rb, \sin C = rc</math>. | |
| − | + | Substitute in <math>\sin ^2 A = \sin B(\sin B + \sin C)</math> and simplify by <math>r^2</math>. | |
| − | + | We get <math>(*)</math>. | |
At this point, notice that <math>(*)</math> is equivalent to the equality | At this point, notice that <math>(*)</math> is equivalent to the equality | ||
<math>a^2c = b(a^2 + c^2 - b^2)</math> from Solution 1. Indeed, the latter | <math>a^2c = b(a^2 + c^2 - b^2)</math> from Solution 1. Indeed, the latter | ||
can be rewritten as <math>a^2(c - b) = b(c + b)(c - b)</math>, and we know | can be rewritten as <math>a^2(c - b) = b(c + b)(c - b)</math>, and we know | ||
| − | that <math>c \ne b</math>. So we could simply quote the fact proven in | + | that <math>c \ne b</math>. So we could simply quote the fact (proven in |
| − | Solution 1 that if <math>a, b, c</math> are consecutive integers and | + | Solution 1) that if <math>a, b, c</math> are consecutive integers and |
<math>a^2 = b(c + b)</math>, then <math>b = 4, c = 5, a = 6</math> is the only solution. | <math>a^2 = b(c + b)</math>, then <math>b = 4, c = 5, a = 6</math> is the only solution. | ||
| − | For the sake of completeness, and for fun, | + | For the sake of completeness, and for fun, I give a slightly |
different proof here. | different proof here. | ||
| Line 85: | Line 86: | ||
<math>(b + 2)^2 = b(b + b + 1)</math>, or <math>b^2 - 3b - 4 = 0</math>. | <math>(b + 2)^2 = b(b + b + 1)</math>, or <math>b^2 - 3b - 4 = 0</math>. | ||
| + | The solutions are <math>-1, 4</math>. The value <math>b = -1</math> is impossible. | ||
| + | Thus, we get the unique triangle <math>a = 6, b = 4, c = 5</math>. | ||
| − | |||
| − | |||
| − | |||
| − | |||
| − | |||
| − | |||
==Solution 3== | ==Solution 3== | ||
| Line 99: | Line 96: | ||
Extend <math>AC</math> to <math>D</math> such that <math>CD = BC = a.</math> Then <math>\angle CDB = \frac{\angle ACB}{2} = \angle ABC</math>, so <math>ABC</math> and <math>ADB</math> are similar by AA Similarity. Hence, <math>c^2 = b(a+b)</math>. Then proceed as in Solution 2, as only algebraic manipulations are left. | Extend <math>AC</math> to <math>D</math> such that <math>CD = BC = a.</math> Then <math>\angle CDB = \frac{\angle ACB}{2} = \angle ABC</math>, so <math>ABC</math> and <math>ADB</math> are similar by AA Similarity. Hence, <math>c^2 = b(a+b)</math>. Then proceed as in Solution 2, as only algebraic manipulations are left. | ||
| + | |||
| + | |||
| + | ==Solution 4== | ||
| + | |||
==See Also== | ==See Also== | ||
{{IMO box|year=1968|before=First Problem|num-a=2}} | {{IMO box|year=1968|before=First Problem|num-a=2}} | ||
| − | + | ||
[[Category:Olympiad Geometry Problems]] | [[Category:Olympiad Geometry Problems]] | ||
Revision as of 19:43, 21 August 2024
Problem
Prove that there is one and only one triangle whose side lengths are consecutive integers, and one of whose angles is twice as large as another.
Solution 1
In triangle
, let
,
,
,
, and
. Using the Law of Sines gives that
Therefore
. Using the Law of Cosines gives that
This can be simplified to
. Since
,
, and
are positive integers,
. Note that if
is between
and
, then
is relatively prime to
and
, and
cannot possibly divide
. Therefore
is either the least of the three consecutive integers or the greatest.
Assume that
is the least of the three consecutive integers. Then either
or
, depending on if
or
. If
, then
is 1 or 2.
couldn't be 1, for if it was then the triangle would be degenerate. If
is 2, then
, but
and
must be 3 and 4 in some order, which means that this triangle doesn't exist. therefore
cannot divide
, and so
must divide
. If
then
, so
is 1, 2, or 4. Clearly
cannot be 1 or 2, so
must be 4. Therefore
. This shows that
and
, and the triangle has sides that measure 4, 5, and 6.
Now assume that
is the greatest of the three consecutive integers. Then either
or
, depending on if
or
.
is absurd, so
, and
. Therefore
is 1, 2, or 4. However, all of these cases are either degenerate or have been previously ruled out, so
cannot be the greatest of the three consecutive integers.
This shows that there is exactly one triangle with this property - and it has side lengths of 4, 5, and 6.
Solution 2
(Note: this proof is an expansion by pf02 of an outline of a solution posted here before.)
In a given triangle
, let
,
, and
.
Then
Hence,
Indeed, we know from the Law of Sines that
.
Denote this ratio by
; we have
.
Substitute in
and simplify by
.
We get
.
At this point, notice that
is equivalent to the equality
from Solution 1. Indeed, the latter
can be rewritten as
, and we know
that
. So we could simply quote the fact (proven in
Solution 1) that if
are consecutive integers and
, then
is the only solution.
For the sake of completeness, and for fun, I give a slightly different proof here.
We have six possibilities, depending on how the three consecutive numbers are ordered. The six possibilities are:
1:
2:
3:
4:
5:
6:
For each case, we substitute
in
, get an equation
in
, solve it, and get all the possible solutions. As a
shortcut, notice that (*) implies that
. If
are consecutive integers, then they are relatively prime, so
can not be true unless
. In this case the
triangle would have sides
, which is impossible.
This eliminates cases 2, 3, 4 and 5.
In case 1,
becomes
, or
.
This has solutions
. The value
is impossible.
The value
yields
, which is impossible.
In case 6,
becomes
, or
.
The solutions are
. The value
is impossible.
Thus, we get the unique triangle
.
Solution 3
NO TRIGONOMETRY!!!
Let
be the side lengths of a triangle in which
Extend
to
such that
Then
, so
and
are similar by AA Similarity. Hence,
. Then proceed as in Solution 2, as only algebraic manipulations are left.
Solution 4
See Also
| 1968 IMO (Problems) • Resources | ||
| Preceded by First Problem |
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 | Followed by Problem 2 |
| All IMO Problems and Solutions | ||