Difference between revisions of "1966 IMO Problems/Problem 6"
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If <math>y(1 - x) \le \frac{1}{4}</math>, we are done. Otherwise, we have | If <math>y(1 - x) \le \frac{1}{4}</math>, we are done. Otherwise, we have | ||
<math>y(1 - x) > \frac{1}{4}</math>. It follows that <math>y > \frac{1}{4(1 - x)}</math> | <math>y(1 - x) > \frac{1}{4}</math>. It follows that <math>y > \frac{1}{4(1 - x)}</math> | ||
− | (recall that <math>0 < x, y, z < 1</math>). | + | (recall that <math>0 < x, y, z < 1</math>). In particular, it follows that |
+ | <math>\frac{1}{4(1 - x)} < 1</math>, which implies <math>3 - 4x > 0</math>. | ||
If <math>z(1 - y) \le \frac{1}{4}</math>, we are done. Otherwise, we have | If <math>z(1 - y) \le \frac{1}{4}</math>, we are done. Otherwise, we have | ||
<math>z(1 - y) > \frac{1}{4}</math>. Using the inequality on <math>y</math> from the | <math>z(1 - y) > \frac{1}{4}</math>. Using the inequality on <math>y</math> from the | ||
previous paragraph, we have | previous paragraph, we have | ||
− | <math>z \left( 1 - \frac{1}{4(1 - x)} \right) > \frac{1}{4}</math>, or | + | <math>z \left( 1 - \frac{1}{4(1 - x)} \right) > \frac{1}{4}</math>, or after |
− | <math>z \cdot \frac{3 - 4x}{1 - x} > 1</math>. | + | a few computations, <math>z \cdot \frac{3 - 4x}{1 - x} > 1</math>. Using the |
− | + | observation about <math>3 - 4x</math> from the preceding paragraph, we get | |
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<math>z > \frac{1 - x}{3 - 4x}</math>. | <math>z > \frac{1 - x}{3 - 4x}</math>. | ||
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<math>x(1 - z) < x \left( 1 - \frac{1 - x}{3 - 4x} \right) </math>. To finish the | <math>x(1 - z) < x \left( 1 - \frac{1 - x}{3 - 4x} \right) </math>. To finish the | ||
solution to the problem, it is enough to show that | solution to the problem, it is enough to show that | ||
− | <math>x \left( 1 - \frac{1 - x}{3 - 4x} \right) \le \frac{1}{4}</math>. | + | <math>x \cdot \left( 1 - \frac{1 - x}{3 - 4x} \right) \le \frac{1}{4}</math>. |
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− | ( | + | After some easy computations (and using again that <math>3 - 4x > 0</math>), this |
+ | becomes <math>3(4x^2 - 4x + 1) \ge 0</math>, which is true because. | ||
+ | <math>4x^2 - 4x + 1 = (2x - 1)^2</math>. | ||
− | + | [Solution by pf02, September 2024] | |
Latest revision as of 19:13, 10 November 2024
Contents
Problem
In the interior of sides of triangle
, any points
, respectively, are selected. Prove that the area of at least one of the triangles
is less than or equal to one quarter of the area of triangle
.
Solution
Let the lengths of sides ,
, and
be
,
, and
, respectively. Let
,
, and
.
Now assume for the sake of contradiction that the areas of ,
, and
are all at greater than one fourth of that of
. Therefore
In other words, , or
. Similarly,
and
. Multiplying these three inequalities together yields
We also have that ,
, and
from the Arithmetic Mean-Geometric Mean Inequality. Multiplying these three inequalities together yields
This is a contradiction, which shows that our assumption must have been false in the first place. This proves the desired result.
Solution 2
Let . Then it is clear that the ratio of areas of
to that of
equals
, respectively. Suppose all three quantities exceed
. Then their product also exceeds
. However, it is clear by AM-GM that
, and so the product of all three quantities cannot exceed
(by the associative property of multiplication), a contradiction. Hence, at least one area is less than or equal to
.
Remarks (added by pf02, September 2024)
Solution 2 is written in a very sloppy way. However, an interested reader can make sense of it. More importantly, the two solutions are identical. If it wasn't for the sloppy writing, Solution 2 could be obtained from the first Solution after applying a word by word translation which replaces line segments by ratios.
Below I will give another solution. It is formally different from the previous solutions, even if not at a deep level.
Solution 3
Let and
be as in the problem.
Denote
as in Solution 2. Note that
because
are in the interior of the respective sides.
Using the fact that the
area of a triangle is half of the product of two sides and of
the angle between them (like in the first Solution), we have that
.
Now the problem has nothing to do with geometry anymore: we just have
to show that given three numbers , at least one
of
is
.
If , we are done. Otherwise, we have
. It follows that
(recall that
). In particular, it follows that
, which implies
.
If , we are done. Otherwise, we have
. Using the inequality on
from the
previous paragraph, we have
, or after
a few computations,
. Using the
observation about
from the preceding paragraph, we get
.
Now consider . Using the inequality on
from the previous
paragraph, we have that
. To finish the
solution to the problem, it is enough to show that
.
After some easy computations (and using again that ), this
becomes
, which is true because.
.
[Solution by pf02, September 2024]
See Also
1966 IMO (Problems) • Resources | ||
Preceded by Problem 5 |
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 | Followed by Last Problem |
All IMO Problems and Solutions |