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Difference between revisions of "2007 IMO Problems/Problem 4"

(→‎Solution 3)
(→‎Solution 3)
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<cmath>= \dfrac{PK(1 + \frac{b}{a})}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C} </cmath>
 
<cmath>= \dfrac{PK(1 + \frac{b}{a})}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C} </cmath>
 
<cmath>= \dfrac{PK(\frac{a + b}{a})}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C}  </cmath>
 
<cmath>= \dfrac{PK(\frac{a + b}{a})}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C}  </cmath>
−
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}a\tan\frac{1}{2}C(a + b)}{a\sin\frac{1}{2}C}  </cmath>
+
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}a\tan\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{a\sin\frac{1}{2}C}  </cmath>
−
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}a\sin\frac{1}{2}C(a + b)}{a\sin\frac{1}{2}C\cos\frac{1}{2}C} </cmath>
+
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}a\sin\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{a\sin\frac{1}{2}C\cos\frac{1}{2}C} </cmath>
−
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C(a + b)}{2\sin{1}{2}C\cos\frac{1}{2}C}          </cmath>
+
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{2\sin \frac{1}{2}C\cos\frac{1}{2}C}          </cmath>
−
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C(a + b)}{\sin C}          </cmath>
+
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{\sin C}          </cmath>
−
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C(a + b)}{c}          </cmath>
+
<cmath>= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{c}          </cmath>
 
<cmath>= CR. </cmath>
 
<cmath>= CR. </cmath>
 
Thus, <math>RF = \dfrac{1}{2}b.</math> In this way, we get that the altidude from <math>R</math> to <math>QL</math> has length <math>\dfrac{1}{2}a.</math> Therefore, we see that <math>[RPK] = \dfrac{1}{8}ab \tan \frac{1}{2}C</math> and <math>[RQL] = \dfrac{1}{8}ab \tan \frac{1}{2}C,</math> so the two areas are equal.  
 
Thus, <math>RF = \dfrac{1}{2}b.</math> In this way, we get that the altidude from <math>R</math> to <math>QL</math> has length <math>\dfrac{1}{2}a.</math> Therefore, we see that <math>[RPK] = \dfrac{1}{8}ab \tan \frac{1}{2}C</math> and <math>[RQL] = \dfrac{1}{8}ab \tan \frac{1}{2}C,</math> so the two areas are equal.  

Revision as of 21:43, 4 September 2020

Problem

In $\triangle ABC$ the bisector of $\angle{BCA}$ intersects the circumcircle again at $R$, the perpendicular bisector of $BC$ at $P$, and the perpendicular bisector of $AC$ at $Q$. The midpoint of $BC$ is $K$ and the midpoint of $AC$ is $L$. Prove that the triangles $RPK$ and $RQL$ have the same area.

Solution

The area of $\triangle{RQL}$ is given by $\dfrac{1}{2}QL*RQ\sin{\angle{RQL}}$ and the area of $\triangle{RPK}$ is $\dfrac{1}{2}RP*PK\sin{\angle{RPK}}$. Let $\angle{BCA}=C$, $\angle{BAC}=A$, and $\angle{ABC}=B$. Now $\angle{KCP}=\angle{QCL}=\dfrac{C}{2}$ and $\angle{PKC}=\angle{QLC}=90$, thus $\angle{RPK}=\angle{RQL}=90+\dfrac{C}{2}$. $\triangle{PKC} \sim \triangle{QLC}$, so $\dfrac{PK}{QL}=\dfrac{KC}{LC}$, or $\dfrac{PK}{QL}=\dfrac{BC}{AB}$. The ratio of the areas is $\dfrac{[RPK]}{[RQL]}=\dfrac{BC*RP}{AC*RQ}$. The two areas are only equal when the ratio is 1, therefore it suffices to show $\dfrac{RP}{RQ}=\dfrac{AC}{BC}$. Let $O$ be the center of the circle. Then $\angle{ROK}=A+C$, and $\angle{ROP}=180-(A+C)=B$. Using law of sines on $\triangle{RPO}$ we have: $\dfrac{RP}{\sin{B}}=\dfrac{OR}{\sin{(90+\dfrac{C}{2})}}$ so $RP*\sin{(90+\dfrac{C}{2})}=OR*\sin{B}$. $OR*\sin{B}=\dfrac{1}{2}AC$ by law of sines, and $\sin{(90+\dfrac{C}{2})}=\cos{\dfrac{C}{2}}$, thus 1) $2RP\cos{\dfrac{C}{2}}=AC$. Similarly, law of sines on $\triangle{ROQ}$ results in $\dfrac{RQ}{\sin{(180-A)}}=\dfrac{OR}{\sin{(90-\dfrac{C}{2})}}$ or $\dfrac{RQ}{\sin{A}}=\dfrac{OR}{\cos{\dfrac{C}{2}}}$. Cross multiplying we have $RQ\cos{\dfrac{C}{2}}=OR*\sin{A}$ or 2) $2RQ\cos{\dfrac{C}{2}}=BC$. Dividing 1) by 2) we have $\dfrac{RP}{RQ}=\dfrac{AC}{BC}$ $\square$

$(tkhalid)$

Solution 2 (Power of a point)

$\angle{RQL}=90+\angle{QCL}=90+\dfrac{C}{2}$, and similarly $\angle{RPK}=90+\angle{PCK}=90+\dfrac{C}{2}$, we have $\angle{RQL}=\angle{RPK}$. Using triangle area formula $A=\dfrac{1}{2}bc\sin{\angle{A}}$, the problem is equivalent to proving $RQ*QL=RP*PK$, or $\dfrac{PK}{QL}=\dfrac{RQ}{RP}$. Draw line $QM$ perpendicular to BC and intersects BC at $M$, then $QM=QL$, and $\dfrac{PC}{QC}=\dfrac{PK}{QM}=\dfrac{PK}{QL}$. Now the problem is equivalent to proving $\dfrac{PC}{QC}=\dfrac{RQ}{RP}$, or $RQ*QC=RP*PC$. Since $\angle{OPQ}=180-\angle{RPK}=180-\angle{RQL}=\angle{OQP}$, we have $OQ=OP=x$. Let the radius of the circumcircle be $r$, then the diameter through $P$ is divided by point $P$ into lengths of $r+x$ and $r-x$. By power of point, $RP*PC=(r+x)(r-x)$. Similarly, $RQ*QC=(r+x)(r-x)$. Therefore $RP*PC=RQ*QC$. $\square$

$(mathdummy)$

Solution 3

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WLOG, let the diameter of $(ACBD)$ be $1.$

We see that $PK = \dfrac{1}{2}a \tan \dfrac{1}{2}C$ and $QL = \dfrac{1}{2}b \tan \dfrac{1}{2}C$ from right triangles $\triangle PKC$ and $\triangle QLC.$

We now look at $AR.$ By the Extended Law of Sines on $\triangle ACR,$ we get that $AR = \sin\frac{1}{2}C.$ Similarly, $BR = \sin \frac{1}{2}C.$

We now look at $CR.$ By Ptolemy's Theorem, we have \[AR \cdot BC + BR \cdot AC = AB \cdot CR,\] which gives us \[\sin \frac{1}{2}C (a + b) = c(CR).\] This means that \[CR = \dfrac{\sin \frac{1}{2}C (a + b)}{c}.\] We now seek to relate the lengths computed with the areas.

To do this, we consider the altitude from $R$ to $PK.$ This is to find the area of $RPK.$ Finding the area of $\triangle RQL$ is similar.

We claim that $RF = \dfrac{1}{2}b.$ In order to prove this, we will prove that $\triangle RFP \cong \triangle QLC.$ In other words, we wish to prove that $PR = QC.$ This is equivalent to proving that $PC + QC = CR.$

Note that $PC = \dfrac{PK}{\sin \frac{1}{2}C}$ and $QC = \dfrac{QL}{\sin \frac{1}{2}C}.$ Therefore, we get that \[PC + QC = \dfrac{PK}{\sin \frac{1}{2}C} + \dfrac{QL}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C}\] \[= \dfrac{PK + QL}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C}\] \[= \dfrac{PK(1 + \frac{b}{a})}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C}\] \[= \dfrac{PK(\frac{a + b}{a})}{\sin\frac{1}{2}C}\] \[= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}a\tan\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{a\sin\frac{1}{2}C}\] \[= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}a\sin\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{a\sin\frac{1}{2}C\cos\frac{1}{2}C}\] \[= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{2\sin \frac{1}{2}C\cos\frac{1}{2}C}\] \[= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{\sin C}\] \[= \dfrac{\frac{1}{2}C \cdot (a + b)}{c}\] \[= CR.\] Thus, $RF = \dfrac{1}{2}b.$ In this way, we get that the altidude from $R$ to $QL$ has length $\dfrac{1}{2}a.$ Therefore, we see that $[RPK] = \dfrac{1}{8}ab \tan \frac{1}{2}C$ and $[RQL] = \dfrac{1}{8}ab \tan \frac{1}{2}C,$ so the two areas are equal.

Solution by Ilikeapos

Alternate solutions are always welcome. If you have a different, elegant solution to this problem, please add it to this page.

2007 IMO (Problems) • Resources
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