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1967 IMO Problems/Problem 2

Revision as of 19:10, 13 September 2024 by Pf02 (talk | contribs)

Prove that if one and only one edge of a tetrahedron is greater than $1$, then its volume is $\le \frac{1}{8}$.

Solution

Assume $CD>1$ and let $AB=x$. Let $P,Q,R$ be the feet of perpendicular from $C$ to $AB$ and $\triangle ABD$ and from $D$ to $AB$, respectively.

Suppose $BP>PA$. We have that $CP=\sqrt{CB^2-BT^2}\le\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}4}$, $CQ\le CP\le\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}4}$. We also have $DQ^2\le\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}4}$. So the volume of the tetrahedron is $\frac13\left(\frac12\cdot AB\cdot DR\right)CQ\le\frac{x}6\left(1-\frac{x^2}4\right)$.

We want to prove that this value is at most $\frac18$, which is equivalent to $(1-x)(3-x-x^2)\ge0$. This is true because $0<x\le 1$.

The above solution was posted and copyrighted by jgnr. The original thread can be found here: [1]


Remarks (added by pf02, September 2024)

The solution above is essentially correct, and it is nice, but it is so sloppily written that it borders the incomprehensible. Below I will give an edited version of it for the sake of completeness.

Then, I will give a second solution to the problem.

A few notes which may be of interest.

The condition that one side is greater than $1$ is not really necessary. The statement is true even if all sides are $\le 1$. What we need is that no more than one side is $> 1$.

The upper limit of $1/8$ for the volume of the tetrahedron is actually reached. This will become clear from both solutions.


Solution

Assume $CD > 1$ and assume that all other sides are $\ le 1$. Let $AB = x$. Let $P, Q, R$ be the feet of perpendiculars from $C$ to $AB$, from $C$ to the plane $ABD$, and from $D$ to $AB$, respectively.

Prob 1967 2 fig1.png

Suppose $BP>PA$. We have that $CP=\sqrt{CB^2-BT^2}\le\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}4}$, $CQ\le CP\le\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}4}$. We also have $DQ^2\le\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}4}$. So the volume of the tetrahedron is $\frac13\left(\frac12\cdot AB\cdot DR\right)CQ\le\frac{x}6\left(1-\frac{x^2}4\right)$.

We want to prove that this value is at most $\frac18$, which is equivalent to $(1-x)(3-x-x^2)\ge0$. This is true because $0<x\le 1$.



TO BE CONTINUED. dOING A SAVE MIDWAY SP I DON'T LOOSE WORK DONE SO FAR.


See Also

1967 IMO (Problems) • Resources
Preceded by
Problem 1 		1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 Followed by
Problem 3
All IMO Problems and Solutions
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